In the foregoing verse he had declared that blindness had come upon Israel that blindness which he had before shown was inflicted on part of the Jewish nation by the judgment of God, verses 8-10, which would continue till a certain period was accomplished. It only requires the salvation of the bulk of the nation (cf. But if the conversion of the last Gentile makes up the total number of ‘all Israel as he/she is engrafted into the olive tree then the whole makes sense.. Seventhly, because it is difficult to see Paul as deliberately distinguishing in the worldwide church between ‘the fullness of the Gentiles’ on the one hand, and ‘all Israel’ (signifying all believing Jews) on the other. The Expositor's Greek Testament. "Davidic Covenant" (See Scofield "2 Samuel 7:16"). God’s work of grace will have been completed. 5. Isaiah 27:9, LXX., καὶ τοῦτο ἐστιν ἡ εὐλογία αὐτοῦ, ὅταν ἀφέλω΄αι τὴν ἀ΄αρτίαν αὐτοῦ, κ. τ. λ., and this is His blessing, when I shall take away his sin. "All Israel" means Israel as a whole in contrast to the relatively small believing remnant of Jews. In the Heb. [Note: Cranfield, 2:576. The Latin Vulg. ἀσεβ. See Bernhardy, p. 255 f.; Fritzsche, ad Marc. The only ones who would accept this are universalists, those who believe that all men will be saved, something which is contrary to the teaching of Scripture. Indeed even the optimistic Jews do not see ‘all Israel’ in a context like this as literally meaning ‘all Israel’. Who Does The ‘All Israel’ Represent In 11:26? The attempt to fill it out has always produced a reaction, which has opposed even the obvious literal sense of the clause. . [Note: The New Scofield ..., p1226.]. The deliverer shall come — Yea, the deliverer is come; but not the full fruit of his coming. In what manner Christ is to come out of Zion, and in what way or by what means he is to turn away transgression from Jacob, we cannot tell; and to attempt to conjecture, when the time, occasion, means, etc., are all in mystery, would be more than reprehensible. The sense, however, is substantially the same in both. It isn’t “spiritual Israel” in Romans 11:25, because that Israel is spiritually blind. When, therefore, all nations shall be given to the Messiah, and submit to His authority, the prophecies concerning Him will be fulfilled in their utmost extent, and His reign over all the earth will be established. He didn"t reject a single one of his (real) people to let you in." As it is written; Isaiah 59:20-21; Psalms 14:7; Jeremiah 31:31-34; Hebrews 10:15-18. The last takes an equally valid translation of pas as signifying ‘a good number’. The point is that as a result of God’s covenant the Deliverer will come ‘out of Zion’ (He being related to Zion in one way or another in all the texts), and will turn away ungodliness from Jacob, forgiving their sins. https:https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/acc/romans-11.html. But is this correct? Paul has certainly viewed the matter as near, seeing that he conceived the Parousia itself to be near (not merely, perhaps, its possible, but its actual emergence—in opposition to Philippi),—a conception which was shared by him with the whole apostolical church, although it remained without the verification of the event, as this was conceived of. The good news comes in two parts. 1905. But we would not want to labour this translation, Romans 11:26-27 ‘Even as it is written, “There will come out of Zion the Deliverer (Redeemer). "Commentary on Romans 11:26". And to turn away the ungodliness that is in Jacob. Baruch 3:7, 1 Maccabees 4:58. It may also mean "in this manner," namely, the way that Paul described in Romans 11:11-24.